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With the CISM exam, you can be well-prepared for the real deal. You can identify weak areas of IT security and strengthen them. Use these CISM exam questions to gauge your ability to weed out loopholes in a company’s IT architecture and protect the company’s infrastructure against threats. The CISM practice test can be taken multiple times and is free of cost. Answer the Simplilearn’s CISM questions today and get ready to become a certified IT security professional!
1. As an IS Manager, you would like to lay down clearly-defined roles and responsibilities? What is the BEST benefit that you expect?
Ensure that all your team comply with policies.
Your team knows what to do and when.
Every one is clear about their responsibilites and work that need to be done.
Your team is more accountable.
2. Who would you look to enforce access rights to application data?
3. You need to get approval form senior management to implement a warm site. How can you BEST achieve this?
Present a business case with cost-benefit analyses.
Present how the warm site would be measured.
4. As an IS Manager you are developing IS Strategy for your organization. Which is the MOST important component of the strategy?
Adoption of a internation control framework like COBIT, ISO etc.
5. Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing a meaningful information security strategy?
6. You are implementing IS policy within your organization. There is a sense of discomfort from within the organization about certain components of the policy. What is the BEST approach to counter this?
Publish documentation about the IS Policy, so that all staff are aware.
7. You have joined an organization recently as an IS Manager. You have requested a meeting with the senior management to discuss organization's network security to the senior managerment. What would you present FIRST?
Infrastructure layout of the organization which highlights all protective devices installed.
Present a a list of attacks that the organization may face on the network.
Present the first draft of your IS Policy.
Present the risk assessment report.
8. You are an IS Manager of an ecommerce portal. You have seen in the media about a new regulation that affects ecommerce transactions. What should you do FIRST?
Call for a meeting with all key stakeholders to discuss the regulation.
Inform the risk management team to analyze the regulation.
Check whether the controls in the existing ecommerce portal can address the regulation.
Inform you team of your plan to conduct a gap analysis.
9. Which of the following would help to change an organization's security culture?
establish security metrics and performance monitoring.
ensure that legal and regulatory requirements are met.
support the business objectives of the organization.
Provide cost-benefit to the organization.
Ensures all members of the IS Team understan corporate governance.
Ensure that all operations within the security team are consistent.
Ensure a faster response time for regulations.
able to provide a more integrated, holistic program.
an essential aspect of developing a security strategy.
a requirement for industry (ISO) certification.
a necessary component of organization governance.
Determine likely areas of noncompliance.
Determine likely areas of compliance.
Understand the threats to the business.
14. Which of the following requirements would have the lowest level of priority in information security?
explains the current risk profile.
to the extent that they impact the enterprise.
by developing policies that address the requirements.
to ensure that guidelines meet the requirements.
17. What would a security manager PRIMARILY utilize when proposing the implementation of a security solution?
19. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to change policies during program development?
The policies must comply with new regulatory and legal mandates.
Appropriate security baselines are no longer set in the policies.
The policies no longer reflect management intent and direction.
Employees consistently ignore the policies.
22. Which of the following is MOST likely to be discretionary?
23. What is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within an organization?
address the process for communicating a violation.
be straightforward and easy to understand.
be customized to specific groups and roles.
25. Which person or group should have final approval of an organization's information security policies?
data privacy directive applicable globally.
27. When implementing effective security governance within the requirements of the company\'s security strategy, which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider?
the responsibilities of organizational units.
29. Which of the following should drive the risk analysis for an organization?
30. Which of the following are seldom changed in response to technological changes?
31. Who is responsible for ensuring that information is categorized and that specific protective measures are taken?
32. Which of the following is the BEST approach to obtain senior management commitment to the information security program?
Describe the reduction of risk.
Present the emerging threat environment.
Demonstrate the alignment of the program to business objectives.
33. What will have the HIGHEST impact on standard information security governance models?
35. Which of the following is a key area of the ISO 27001 framework?
state only one general security mandate.
are aligned with organizational goals.
govern the creation of procedures and guidelines.
37. Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?
38. Priority should be given to which of the following to ensure effective implementation of information security governance?
ability to mitigate business risks.
use of new and emerging technologies.
benefits in comparison to their costs.
invite an external consultant to create the security strategy.
allocate budget based on best practices.
define high-level business security requirements.
41. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to securing approval for information security expenditures?
determine the probability of success.
define the issues to be addressed.
43. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to achieve alignment between information security and organization objectives?
benchmark a number of successful organizations.
demonstrate potential losses and other impacts that can result from a lack of support.
inform management of the legal requirements of due care.
demonstrate support for desired outcomes.
assuming overall protection of information assets.
implementing security controls in products they install.
ensuring security measures are consistent with policy.
identify whether current controls are adequate.
communicate the new requirement to audit.
implement the requirements of the new regulation.
conduct a cost-benefit analysis of implementing the control.
focused on eliminating all risks.
a balance between technical and business requirements.
defined by the board of directors.
51. You are a IS Manager recently appointed. You now need to evaluate the data classification in the organization. Who would you talk to?
52. What would be the BEST outcome for any risk management process?
The business operations exceed their performance every year.
53. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate use of gap analysis?
It used to identify gaps in information security tools.
It is used to identify gaps between performance of your organization with the next best competitor.
54. As an IS Manager, which part of data classification would consider as MOST important?
55. You are an IS Manager discussing with the IT team of your organization, on implementation project plan of a new application to be rolled out. The IT team feels that as this is a technology based application, business managers or their team members need not be part of the project team. What should you do?
Discuss this with the business managers first.
Ask for the requirement document to check whether it is really a technology based application.
Take it up with the Security Steering committee in the next scheduled meeting.
Take this issue with the internal auditors.
56. As an IS Manager, you are considering to upgrade and implement controls to establish a layered protection to your organization. Which is the MOST important consideration?
Controls that can be implemented by standard procedures.
Controls that can fail in different conditions.
Controls that do not display critical messages when they fail.
57. What mechanisms are used to identify weakness or threats that can affect a business critical application?
Run an disaster recovery scenario on the affected network.
58. How, as an IS Manager would you test the effectiveness of a control you implemented.
Staff can be easily trained on implementing and using the control.
59. What from the following is NOT true of transfer of risk?
Once the risk is transferred, it also removes the responsibility of the risk.
Risk is transferred from one party to another party.
Transfer of risk is a requirement that can be met by with an insurance contract.
Risk transfer is a risk response technique adopted by many organizations.
60. As an IS Manager, you are designing the networks for your organization. From a risk perspective, which of the following requires your close attention?
The Local network is segregated into multiple virtual LANs (VLANs).
You are providing remote access to your staff as well as partners.
The CEO wants install wireless network in her conference room.
Study the organization chart of your company.
Analyze past and present financial details of the organization and group it by department managers.
62. What is the purpose of vulnerability assessment?
63. Which of the following would help management determine the resources needed to mitigate a risk to the organization?
64. You are in a meeting with CEO and the board and discussing implementation of a key control. One of the main agenda points is the investment for the control. What technique would you adopt to get their support?
Present reports from the penetration test carried out by an external party.
Present a report from Gartner indicating that the supplier of the control is on their niche player quadrant.
65. You have completed the risk assessment process of your organization and now are left with residual risks. However, the likelihood and impact of these risks are high. What is the BEST solution?
Mitigate the impact by purchasing insurance.
Transfer applications to a cloud provider.
66. As an IS Manager you need to determine the criticality and sensitivity of information assets. What would you carry out?
Security assessment which also includes social engineering tactics.
67. What is the purpose of carrying out a Business impact analysis?
Measure the criticality of the business function along with acceptable downtime and resources affected.
Calculate the cost of business outages caused by a impact.
Prepare the disaster recovery team and its organization chart.
68. A business critical system has a requirement to have an account that cannot be automatically locked by the system. What would be the BEST countermeasure to prevent a hacker running a brute force attack on the account.
Disallow access to this account.
69. Which of the following would be of GREATEST importance to the security manager in determining whether to further mitigate residual risk?
70. A project manager is developing a developer portal and requests that the security manager assign a public IP address so that it can be accessed by in-house staff and by external consultants outside the organization's local area network (LAN). What should the security manager do FIRST?
before developing a business case.
at each stage of the software development life cycle (SDLC).
72. What is the TYPICAL output of a risk assessment?
structured query language (SQL) injection.
76. Which of the following measures would be MOST effective against insider threats to confidential information?
assess the risk of noncompliance.
prepare a status report for management.
78. Which of the following steps in conducting a risk assessment should be performed FIRST?
reviewing new laws and regulations.
a data leak prevention program.
a network intrusion detection system (IDS).
81. There is a time lag between the time when a security vulnerability is first published, and the time when a patch is delivered. Which of the following should be carried out FIRST to mitigate the risk during this time period?
82. During which phase of development is it MOST appropriate to begin assessing the risk of a new application system?
83. Which one of the following factors of a risk assessment typically involves the GREATEST amount of speculation?
84. Which of the following is the MOST important reason to include an effective threat and vulnerability assessment in the change management process?
To reduce the need for periodic full risk assessments.
To ensure that information security is aware of changes.
To ensure that policies are changed to address new threats.
treated as a distinct process.
conducted by the IT department.
86. Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for setting up an information security infrastructure for a new system?
87. A permissive controls policy would be reflected in which one of the following implementations?
Allows access unless explicitly denied.
IT systems are configured to fail closed.
Specifies individuals can delegate privileges.
Permits control variations with defined limits.
88. Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure the overall effectiveness of a risk management program?
89. Which of the following would be the BEST indicator of an asset's value to an organization?
90. In which phase of the development process should risk assessment be FIRST introduced?
91. Which of the following would be MOST relevant to include in a cost-benefit analysis of a two-factor authentication system?
92. Which is the BEST way to measure and prioritize aggregate risk deriving from a chain of linked system vulnerabilities?
93. A company recently developed a breakthrough technology. Since this technology could give this company a significant competitive edge, which of the following would FIRST govern how this information is to be protected?
94. Which of the following is the BEST quantitative indicator of an organization's current risk tolerance?
95. Which of the following is the MOST important element to consider when initiating asset classification?
as a mandate that requires organization compliance.
based on the level of risk they pose to the organization.
97. Which of the following authentication methods prevents authentication replay?
98. Which of the following groups would be in the BEST position to perform a risk analysis for a business?
the cost of security is higher in later stages.
information security may affect project feasibility.
information security is essential to project approval.
it ensures proper project classification.
101. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a service level agreement (SLA) to mitigate the risk that outsourcing will result in a loss to the business?
create a separate account for the programmer as a power user.
log all of the programmer's activity for review by their supervisor.
have the programmer sign a letter accepting full responsibility.
perform regular audits of the application.
103. Which of the following is the MAIN objective in contracting with an external company to perform penetration testing?
104. Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing weaknesses from being introduced into existing production systems?
105. Which of the following should be done FIRST when making a decision to allow access to the information processing facility (IPF) of an enterprise to a new external party?
the parties to the agreement can perform.
confidential data are not included in the agreement.
the right to audit is a requirement.
107. An organization's information security manager is planning the structure of the Information Security Steering Committee. Which of the following groups should the manager invite?
108. Which of the following is the BEST indicator that security awareness training has been effective?
109. Which of the following is the MOST important item to consider when evaluating products to monitor security across the enterprise?
110. Which of the following would raise security awareness among an organization's employees?
111. Which of the following is MOST effective for securing wireless networks as a point of entry into a corporate network?
112. Which of the following security controls addresses availability?
113. Which of the following is an advantage of a centralized information security organizational structure?
It is easier to promote security awareness.
It is easier to manage and control.
It is more responsive to business unit needs.
It provides a faster turnaround for security requests.
114. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate individual to implement and maintain the level of information security needed for a specific business application?
116. What is the MOST important reason for conducting security awareness programs throughout an organization?
an effective control over connectivity and continuity.
a service level agreement (SLA) including code escrow.
a business impact analysis (BIA).
118. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate individual to ensure that new exposures have not been introduced into an existing application during the change management process?
119. Which of the following devices should be placed within a DMZ?
120. Which of the following is the MOST important action to take when engaging third-party consultants to conduct an attack and penetration test?
121. Which of the following will BEST protect against malicious activity by a former employee?
are decrypted by the firewall.
may be quarantined by mail filters.
may be corrupted by the receiving mail server.
123. The effectiveness of virus detection software is MOST dependent on which of the following?
124. Which of the following is the BEST way to erase confidential information stored on magnetic tapes?
only at the beginning and at the end of the new process.
during the entire life cycle of the process.
at the appropriate point since timing of assessments will differ for processes.
depending upon laws and regulations.
127. What is the BEST policy for securing data on mobile universal serial bus (USB) drives?
128. Which of the following is the BEST approach to dealing with inadequate funding of the security program?
Require management to accept the increased risk.
Prioritize risk mitigation and educate management.
Reduce monitoring and compliance enforcement activities.
129. An organization that outsourced its payroll processing performed an independent assessment of the security controls of the third party, per policy requirements. Which of the following is the MOST useful requirement to include in the contract?
messages displayed at every logon.
an intranet web site for information security.
circulating the information security policy.
132. The data backup policy will contain which of the following?
133. Which of the following would be the BEST defense against sniffing?
134. Which of the following controls is MOST effective in providing reasonable assurance of physical access compliance to an unmanned server room controlled with biometric devices?
135. When considering outsourcing services, at what point should information security become involved in the vendor management process?
136. Which of the following will BEST ensure that management takes ownership of the decision making process for information security?
137. Which of the following, using public key cryptography, ensures authentication, confidentiality and nonrepudiation of a message?
138. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
140. What is the GREATEST risk when there is an excessive number of firewall rules?
141. Which item would be the BEST to include in the information security awareness training program for new general staff employees?
142. Which of the following is MOST effective in protecting against the attack technique known as phishing?
to a higher false reject rate (FRR).
to a lower crossover error rate.
to a higher false acceptance rate (FAR).
exactly to the crossover error rate.
link policies to an independent standard.
146. Which of the following is the MOST important guideline when using software to scan for security exposures within a corporate network?
assess the problems and institute rollback procedures, if needed.
disconnect the systems from the network until the problems are corrected.
immediately uninstall the patches from these systems.
immediately contact the vendor regarding the problems that occurred.
148. The organization has decided to outsource the majority of the IT department with a vendor that is hosting servers in a foreign country. Of the following, which is the MOST critical security consideration?
Laws and regulations of the country of origin may not be enforceable in the foreign country.
A security breach notification might get delayed due to the time difference.
Additional network intrusion detection sensors should be installed, resulting in an additional cost.
The company could lose physical control over the server and be unable to monitor the physical security posture of the servers.
149. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify that all critical production servers are utilizing up-to-date virus signature files?
150. Which of the following is the MOST important element to ensure the successful recovery of a business during a disaster?
the information security steering committee.
customers who may be impacted.
data owners who may be impacted.
152. Which of the following application systems should have the shortest recovery time objective (RTO)?
153. Which of the following is the BEST mechanism to determine the effectiveness of the incident response process?
during the establishment of the plan.
once an incident has been confirmed by operations staff.
after fully testing the incident management plan.
after the implementation details of the plan have been approved.
conducting a business impact assessment.
conducting a table-top business continuity test.
selecting an alternate recovery site.
156. Which of the following recovery strategies has the GREATEST chance of failure?
use the test equipment in the warm site facility to read the tapes.
periodically retrieve the tapes from the warm site and test them.
have duplicate equipment available at the warm site.
inspect the facility and inventory the tapes on a quarterly basis.
159. Which of the following is MOST important when deciding whether to build an alternate facility or subscribe to a third-party hot site?
assess the impact of the loss and determine mitigating steps.
communicate the best practices in protecting laptops to all laptop users.
instruct the erring employees to pay a penalty for the lost laptops.
recommend that management report the incident to the police and file for insurance.
161. Which of the following actions should take place immediately after a security breach is reported to an information security manager?
162. At the conclusion of a disaster recovery test, which of the following should ALWAYS be performed prior to leaving the vendor's hot site facility?
163. What is the FIRST action an information security manager should take when a company laptop is reported stolen?
164. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to ensure that a business continuity plan (BCP) meets an organization's needs?
Require quarterly updating of the BCP.
Automate the survey of plan owners to obtain input to the plan.
Periodically test the cross-departmental plan with varied scenarios.
require the use of strong passwords.
install an intrusion detection system (IDS).
166. Which of the following should be performed FIRST in the aftermath of a denial-of-service attack?
167. When a significant security breach occurs, what should be reported FIRST to senior management?
require a stable, rarely changed environment.
be located on the network.
170. During the recovery process following a natural disaster, a server that hosts an important new customer-facing web service was among the last systems restored, resulting in significant lost sales. Which of the following is the BEST approach to prevent this from happening again?
Regularly review and update the business impact analysis (BIA).
Ensure that the sales department has representation on the recovery team.
Establish a warm site for recovery purposes.
171. When electronically stored information is requested during a fraud investigation, which of the following should be the FIRST priority?
173. When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), which of the following should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?
174. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify that all critical production servers are utilizing up-to-date virus signature files?
always the best option for an enterprise.
often in conflict with effective problem management.
the basis for enterprise risk management (ERM) activities.
a component of forensics training.
176. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for an organization interacting with the media during a disaster?
177. Which of the following is the MOST important to ensure a successful recovery?
178. Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of forensic investigations that will potentially involve legal action?
clear policies detailing incident severity levels.
broadly dispersed intrusion detection capabilities.
training employees to recognize security incidents.
effective communication and reporting processes.
180. Which of the following is MOST closely associated with a business continuity program?
181. A new e-mail virus that uses an attachment disguised as a picture file is spreading rapidly over the Internet. Which of the following should be performed FIRST in response to this threat?
182. Which of the following would be a MAJOR consideration for an organization defining its business continuity plan (BCP) or disaster recovery program (DRP)?
rebuild the server from the last verified backup.
place the web server in quarantine.
shut down the server in an organized manner.
rebuild the server with original media and relevant patches.
184. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for making a decision to establish an alternate site for disaster recovery?
185. Why is 'slack space' of value to an information security manager as part of an incident investigation?
186. Which of the following MOST effectively reduces false-positive alerts generated by a security information and event management (SIEM) process?
187. Who would be in the BEST position to determine the recovery point objective (RPO) for business applications?
188. When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), which of the following would be the MOST appropriate to calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?
allow business processes to continue during the response.
allow the security team to assess the attack profile.
permit the incident to continue to trace the source.
examine the incident response process for deficiencies.
how an attack was launched on the network.
potential attacks on the internal network.
191. Which of the following terms and conditions represent a significant deficiency if included in a commercial hot site contract?
192. A serious vulnerability is reported in the firewall software used by an organization. Which of the following should be the immediate action of the information security manager?
193. The business continuity policy should contain which of the following?
identify people who have not followed the process.
identify equipment that is needed.
196. Which of the following should be determined FIRST when establishing a business continuity program?
intrusion detection system (IDS) capabilities.
198. A company has a network of branch offices with local file/print and mail servers; each branch individually contracts a hot site. Which of the following would be the GREATEST weakness in recovery capability?
make an image copy of the media.
200. Which of the following is the MOST significant risk of using reciprocal agreements for disaster recovery?
Both entities are vulnerable to the same threat.
The contract contains legal inadequacies.
The cultures of the organizations are not compatible.
One party has more frequent disruptions.
The correct option is D.Well-defined roles and responsibilities is a major requirement for accountability.
The correct option is D.As data custodians, security administrators are responsible for enforcing access rights to data. Data owners are responsible for approving these access rights. Business process owners are sometimes the data owners as well, and would not be responsible for enforcement. The security steering committee would not be responsible for enforcement.
The correct option is C.Business case development, including a cost-benefit analysis, is most ideal to win the support of the senior management. The remaining options cannot be used to garner support on their own and always must be accompanied by a business case. Keeping senior management informed of regulatory requirements may help gain support for initiatives, but it is well known that more than half of all organizations are not in compliance, so may not get senior management buy-in.
The correct option is A.Without defined objectives, a strategy-the plan to achieve objectives-cannot be developed. Time frames for delivery are important but not critical for inclusion in the strategy document. Similarly, the adoption of a control framework is not critical to have a successful information security strategy. Policies are developed subsequent to, and as a part of, implementing a strategy.
The correct option is D.Alignment of security with business objectives requires an understanding of what an organization is trying to accomplish. The other choices are all elements that must be considered, but their importance is secondary and will vary depending on organizational goals.
The correct option is B.The best way to ensure the organization adopt the IS Policy is to get management support. Pressure from senior management will help to enforce the policy.
The correct option is D.A tool used to help the senior management to understand high level threats, probabilities and existing controls is a risk assessment. Others may follow the risk assessment presentation.
The correct option is C.It is BEST to check FIRST whether the existing controls can address the regulation. Susbsequent steps can be taken only if the existing controls cannot address the regulation.
The correct option is B.Management support and pressure will help to change an organization's culture. Procedures will support an information security policy, but cannot change the culture of the organization. Technical controls will provide more security to an information system and staff; however, this does not mean the culture will be changed. Auditing will help to ensure the effectiveness of the information security policy; however, auditing is not effective in changing the culture of the company.
The correct option is D.The business objectives of the organization supersede all other factors. Establishing metrics and measuring performance, meeting legal and regulatory requirements, and educating business process owners are all subordinate to this overall goal.
The correct option is A.Non-alignment of corporate governance and security governance will result in potentially weak, duplicate or unneccessary controls. This can result in additional costs for the organization to rework and align security governance with corporate governance.
The correct option is A.A holistic model based on a systems approach can help clarify complex relationships and their interdependencies within an organization, and thus provide a more effective integration of people, processes and technology. While a systems approach is useful for developing a security strategy and for understanding the relationship between people, processes and technology, a systems approach is not essential nor is it a requirement for industry (ISO) certification.
The correct option is A.Business operations are the main driver for security activities. IS Manager must ensure that all activities, carried out not only support the organizational objectives, but also preserves the organization.
The correct option is A.Information security priorities may, at times, override technical specifications, which then must be rewritten to conform to minimum security standards. Regulatory and privacy requirements are government-mandated and, therefore, not subject to override. The needs of the business should always take precedence in deciding information security priorities.
The correct option is A.Management is primarily interested in security solutions that can address risks in the most cost-effective way. To address the needs of an organization, a business case should address appropriate security solutions in line with the organizational strategy.
The correct option is A.Legal and regulatory requirements should be assessed based on the impact of noncompliance or partial compliance balanced against the costs of compliance, the risk tolerance defined by management, and the extent and nature of enforcement. International standards may not address the legal requirements in question. Policies should not address particular regulations because regulations are subject to change. Policies should only address the need to assess regulatory requirements and deal with them appropriately based on risk and impact. Guidelines would normally not address regulations, although standards may address regulations based on management's determination of the appropriate level of compliance.
The correct option is C.The information security manager needs to prioritize the controls based on risk management and the requirements of the organization. The information security manager must look at the costs of the various controls and compare them against the benefit the organization will receive from the security solution. The information security manager needs to have knowledge of the development of business cases to illustrate the costs and benefits of the various controls. All other choices are supplemental.
The correct option is B.Business dependency assessment is a process of determining the dependency of a business on certain information resources. It is not an outcome or a product of effective security management. Strategic alignment is an outcome of effective security governance. Where there is good governance, there is likely to be strategic alignment. Risk assessment is not an outcome of effective security governance; it is a process. Planning comes at the beginning of effective security governance, and is not an outcome but a process.
The correct option is C.Policies must reflect management intent and direction. Policies should be changed only when management determines that there is a need to address new legal and regulatory requirements. Regulatory requirements typically are better addressed with standards and procedures than with high-level policies. Standards set security baselines, not policies. Employees not abiding by policies is a compliance and enforcement issue rather than a reason to change the policies.
The correct option is B.Information security projects should be assessed on the basis of the positive impact that they will have on the organization. Time,cost and resource issues should be subordinate to this objective.
The correct option is A.Privacy policies must contain notifications and opt-out provisions; they are a high-level management statement of direction. They do not necessarily address warranties, liabilities or geographic coverage, which are more specific.
The correct option is C.Policies define security goals and expectations for an organization. These are defined in more specific terms within standards and procedures. Standards establish what is to be done while procedures describe how it is to be done. Guidelines provide recommendations that business management must consider in developing practices within their areas of control; as such, they are discretionary.
The correct option is A.Defining and ratifying the classification structure of information assets is the primary role of the information security manager in the process of information classification within the organization. Choice B is incorrect because the final responsibility for deciding the classification levels rests with the data owners. Choice C is incorrect because the job of securing information assets is the responsibility of the data custodians. Choice D may be a role of an information security manager but is not the key role in this context.
The correct option is C.As high-level statements, information security policies should be straightforward and easy to understand. They are high-level and,therefore, do not address network vulnerabilities directly or the process for communicating a violation. As policies, they should provide a uniform message to all groups and user roles.
The correct option is C.Senior management should have final approval of all organization policies, including information technology (IT) security policies.Business unit managers should have input into IT policies, but they should not have authority to give final approval. The CISO would more than likely be the primary author of the policies and therefore is not the appropriate individual to approve the policies. The CIO should provide input into the IT security policies, but should not have the authority to give final approval.
The correct option is B.As a subsidiary, the local entity will have to comply with the local law for data collected in the country. Senior management will be accountable for this legal compliance. The policy, being internal, cannot supersede the local law. Additionally, with local regulations differing from the country in which the organization is headquartered, it is improbable that a groupwide policy will address all the local legal requirements. In case of data collected locally (and potentially transferred to a country with a different data privacy regulation), the local law applies, not the law applicable to the head office. The data privacy laws are country-specific.
The correct option is A.The goal of information security is to protect the organization's information assets. International security standards are situational, depending upon the company and its business. Adhering to corporate privacy standards is important, but those standards must be appropriate and adequate and are not the most important factor to consider. All employees are responsible for information security,but it is not the most important factor to consider.
The correct option is A.Information security exists to help the organization meet its objectives. The information security manager should identify information security needs based on organizational needs. Organizational or business risk should always take precedence. Involving each organizational unit in information security and establishing metrics to measure success will be viewed favorably by senior management after the overall organizational risk is identified.
The correct option is B.Although senior management should support and sponsor a risk analysis, the know-how and the management of the project will be with the security department. Quality management and the legal department will contribute to the project.
The correct option is C.Policies are high-level statements of objectives. Because of their high-level nature and statement of broad operating principles, they are less subject to periodic change. Security standards and procedures as well as guidelines must be revised and updated based on the impact of technology changes.
The correct option is B.Routine administration of all aspects of security is delegated, but top management must retain overall responsibility. The security officer supports and implements information security for senior management. The end user does not perform categorization. The custodian supports and implements information security measures as directed.
The correct option is D.A security program must be aligned to business objectives. Senior management will support the security program only when it helps achieve the business objectives. The security program will always try to reduce the risk; however, it has to be balanced against the cost and impact to the business. Reduction of risk alone cannot justify the security program from the senior management perspective. The security program monitors emerging threats; however, the threat environment itself cannot determine the mitigating activities. There are many ways to deal with threats. Senior management is primarily interested in how the security program can mitigate threats while supporting the ultimate business goals. While benchmarking against other enterprises can provide an approach, it does not necessarily mean that the approach is the best one for the enterprise.
The correct option is C.Information security governance models are highly dependent on the overall organizational structure. Some of the elements that impact organizational structure are multiple missions and functions across the organization, leadership and lines of communication.Number of employees and distance between physical locations have less impact on information security governance models since well-defined process, technology and people components intermingle to provide the proper governance. Organizational budget is not a major impact once good governance models are in place, hence governance will help in effective management of the organization's budget.
The correct option is D.Business owners are ultimately responsible for their applications. The legal department, compliance officer and information security manager all can advise, but do not have final responsibility.
The correct option is D.Operational risk assessment, financial crime metrics and capacity management can complement the information security framework, but only business continuity management is a key component.
The correct option is C.The most important characteristic of good security policies is that they be aligned with organizational goals. Failure to align policies and goals significantly reduces the value provided by the policies. Stating expectations of IT management omits addressing overall organizational goals and objectives. Stating only one general security mandate is the next best option since policies should be clear; otherwise, policies may be confusing and difficult to understand. Governing the creation of procedures and guidelines is most relevant to information security standards.
The correct option is C.The board of directors and senior management are ultimately responsible for all that happens in the organization. The others are not individually liable for failures of security in the organization.
The correct option is D.Planning is the key to effective implementation of information security governance. Consultation, negotiation and facilitation come after planning.
The correct option is A.The most fundamental evaluation criterion for the appropriate selection of any security technology is its ability to reduce or eliminate business risks. Investments in security technologies should be based on their overall value in relation to their cost; the value can be demonstrated in terms of risk mitigation. This should take precedence over whether they use new or exotic technologies or how they are evaluated in trade publications.
The correct option is D.All four choices are valid steps in the process of implementing a formal information security program; however, defining high-level business security requirements should precede the others because the implementation should be based on those security requirements.
The correct option is A.Justifying and obtaining approval for a security initiative is more likely to be successful if it is supported by a well-developed business case. Choices B, C and D will each be just one typical element of a business case.
The correct option is D.Without a clear definition of the issues to be addressed, the other components of a business case cannot be determined.
The correct option is C.A security program enabling business activities would be most helpful to achieve alignment between information security and organization objectives. All of the other choices are part of the security program and would not individually and directly help as much as the security program.
The correct option is D.The most effective approach to gain support from management for the information security program is to persuasively demonstrate how the program will help achieve the desired outcomes. This can be done by providing specific business support in areas of operational predictability and regulatory compliance, and by improving resource allocation and meaningful performance metrics. While benchmarking similar organizations can be helpful in some instances to make a case for management support of the information security program, benchmarking by itself is not sufficient. Requirements for the exercise of due care should also be covered by the desired outcomes.
The correct option is C.The first step in implementing information security governance is to define the security strategy based on which security baselines are determined. Adopting suitable security standards, performing risk assessment and implementing security policy are steps that follow the definition of the security strategy.
The correct option is D.Security responsibilities of data custodians within an organization include ensuring that appropriate security measures are maintained and are consistent with organizational policy. Executive management holds overall responsibility for protection of the information assets. Data owners determine data classification levels for information assets so that appropriate levels of controls can be provided to meet the requirements relating to confidentiality, integrity and availability. Implementation of information security in products is the responsibility of the IT developers.
The correct option is A.If current security practices and procedures already meet the new regulation, then there is no need to implement new controls.
The correct option is B.Information security should ensure that business objectives are met given available technical capabilities, resource constraints and compliance requirements. It is not practical or feasible to eliminate all risks. Regulatory requirements must be considered, but are inputs to the business considerations. The board of directors does not define information security, but provides direction in support of the business goals and objectives.
The correct option is B.Privacy protection is necessary to ensure that the receiving party has the appropriate level of protection of personal data. Change management primarily protects only the information, not the privacy of the individuals. Consent is one of the protections that is frequently, but not always, required. Encryption is a method of achieving the actual control, but controls over the devices may not ensure adequate privacy protection and, therefore, is a partial answer.
The correct option is C.The data owner is usually a member of management who has due care responsibility and will be held responsible for any neglect.The data custodian is responsible for preserving and protecting data confidentiality, integrity and availability based on the classification requirements assigned by the data owner.
The correct option is B.The best strategy for risk management is to reduce risk to an acceptable level, as this will take into account the organization's appetite for risk and the fact that it would not be practical to eliminate all risk. Ensuring business growth via risk management is not practical. Any risk external or internal cannot be completely removed, and there would be residual risk in any organization which must be acceptable to the business.
The correct option is D.A gap analysis is most useful in addressing the differences between the current state and an ideal future state. It is not appropriate for evaluating other choices listed.
The correct option is C.Level of impact that would occur as a result of exposure is the KEY element to consider for data classification.
The correct option is A.Verifying the decision with the business units is the correct answer because it is not the IT function's responsibility to decide whether a new application modifies business processes. Other choices are not appropriate and may delay the project.
The correct option is B.Common failure in existing controls must be considered by upgrading or adding controls so that they fail under different conditions. This will allow for layered protection from the total risks to an organization.
The correct option is B.A security gap analysis can identify weakness of the security controls in place. Ideally this will cover not only the weakness of the technology but also of the process in place.
The correct option is C. Control effectiveness is achieved when control works as intended. Facility for notification does not determine control effectiveness. Reliability is also not an indication of control strength; weak controls can be highly reliable, even if they are ineffective controls.
The correct option is A.Transferring risk is a risk response technique that reduces the impact, but does not eliminate responsibility. Please note that certain risk cannot be transferred.
The correct option is C.Of the list, wireless poses the maximum risk if not configured properly. Even if misconfigured, the other choices generally pose less risk.
The correct option is A.The starting point for identify asset owners is to study and analyze all business processes. Business process provide input, the process business logic and the corresponding output. It will also provide accountabilities and controls, and hence provides the most accurate picture to assign the ownership of information assets. Other choices does not provide information on asset owners.
The correct option is D.A network vulnerability assessment intends to identify known weaknesses and vulnerabilities in software and tools based on common misconfigurations and missing updates.
The correct option is B.The business impact analysis (BIA) determines the possible outcome of a risk and is essential to determine the appropriate cost of control. The risk analysis process provides comprehensive data, but does not determine definite resources to mitigate the risk as does the BIA. The risk management balanced scorecard is a measuring tool for goal attainment. A risk-based audit program is used to focus the audit process on the areas of greatest importance to the organization.
The correct option is A.In this scenario, presentation of the cost-benefit analysis can be used to justify investment in a specific control measure.
The correct option is A.When residual risk are high, the only practical solution is to purchase insurance. Purchasing insurance is also known as risk transference.
The correct option is D.The criticality and sensitivity of information assets can be determined by the impact of the probability of the threats exploiting weaknesses in the asset. This also takes into account the asset value.
The correct option is A.The main purpose of a BIA is to measure the downtime tolerance, associated resources and criticality of a business function.
The correct option is B.Creating a long and a strong random password is difficult to hack due to the long time it takes to break the account. Access to the account cannot be disallowed as it is business critical. Isolation the system to a DMZ or enabling logging will not prevent an brute force attack.
The correct option is C.The security manager would be most concerned with whether residual risk would be reduced by a greater amount than the cost of adding additional controls. The other choices, although relevant, would not be as important.
The correct option is A.The information security manager cannot make an informed decision about the request without first understanding the business requirements of the developer portal. Performing a vulnerability assessment of the developer portal and installing an intrusion detection system (IDS) are best practices but are subsequent to understanding the requirements. Obtaining a signed nondisclosure agreement will not take care of the risks inherent in the organization's application.
The correct option is D.Performing risk assessments at each stage of the SDLC is the most cost-effective method because it ensures that vulnerabilities are discovered as soon as possible. A risk assessment performed before system development will not find vulnerabilities introduced during development. Performing a risk assessment at system deployment is generally not cost-effective and can miss a key risk. If performed prior to business case development, a risk assessment will not discover risk introduced during the SDLC.
The correct option is D.An inventory of risk is the output of a risk assessment. All other choices contribute to, or are subsequent to, the assessment.
The correct option is A.The authentication process is broken because, although the session is valid, the application should reauthenticate when the input parameters are changed. The review provided valid employee IDs, and valid input was processed. The problem here is the lack of reauthentication when the input parameters are changed. Cross-site scripting is not the problem in this case since the attack is not transferred to any other user's browser to obtain the output. Structured query language (SQL) injection is not a problem since input is provided as a valid employee ID and no SQL queries are injected to provide the output.
The correct option is C.Segregation of duties is primarily used to discourage fraudulent activities. Employee monitoring and enhanced compliance are secondary considerations. Supervision is not reduced, but facilitated.
The correct option is A.Inconsistent compliance can be the result of different factors, but is often a lack of awareness. Assessing the risk of noncompliance will provide the information needed to determine the most effective remediation requirements. If awareness is adequate, training may not help and increased compliance enforcement may be indicated. A report may be warranted, but will not directly address the issue that is normally a part of the information security manager's responsibilities. Increased enforcement is not warranted if the problem is a lack of effective communication about security policy.
The correct option is A.Risk assessment first requires one to identify the business assets that need to be protected before identifying the threats. The next step is to establish whether those threats represent business risk by identifying the likelihood and effect of occurrence, followed by assessing the vulnerabilities that may affect the security of the asset. This process establishes the control objectives against which key controls can be evaluated.
The correct option is D.A risk assessment should be conducted to determine new risks introduced by the outsourced processes. The other choices may or may not be identified as mitigating measures based on the risks determined by the assessment.
The correct option is C.Information classification must be conducted first. Only after data are determined critical to the organization can a data leak prevention program be properly implemented. User awareness training can be helpful, but only after data have been classified. Network intrusion detection is a technology that can support the data leak prevention program, but it is not a primary consideration.
The correct option is A.The best protection is to identify the vulnerable systems and apply compensating controls until a patch is installed. Minimizing the use of vulnerable systems and communicating the vulnerability to system users could be compensating controls but would not be the first course of action. Choice D does not make clear the timing of when the intrusion detection system (IDS) signature list would be updated to accommodate the vulnerabilities that are not yet publicly known. Therefore, this approach should not always be considered as the first option.
The correct option is A.Risk should be addressed as early in the development of a new application system as possible. In some cases, identified risks could be mitigated through design changes. If needed changes are not identified until design has already commenced, such changes become more expensive. For this reason, beginning risk assessment during the design, development or testing phases is not the best solution.
The correct option is D.The likelihood of a threat encountering a susceptible vulnerability can only be estimated statistically. Exposure, impact and vulnerability can be determined within a range.
The correct option is A.By assessing threats and vulnerabilities during the change management process, changes in risk can be determined and a risk assessment can be updated incrementally. This keeps the risk assessment current without the need to complete a full reassessment. Information security should have notification processes in place to ensure awareness of changes that might impact security. Policies should rarely require adjustment in response to changes in threats or vulnerabilities. While including an effective threat and vulnerability assessment may assist in maintaining compliance, it is not the primary reason for the change management process.
The correct option is C.Risk management activities are more likely to be executed as part of a business process. The scope of information security risk management encompasses more than IT processes. Communication alone does not necessarily correlate with successful execution of the process.


text:
Laura was called out by Sara Fitts to do the cold water challenge. Because Laura is pregnant and not allowed to participate, I am doing the challenge in her place. We will donate $10 to her chosen charity the Ronald McDonald House in Providence.
I am calling out the following people, Seth Joubert, Daniel Joubert, Jr., Jennifer Croft, Anthony Pirri, Stephan Saraidarian, Tommy Holton, and Ashley Silverman.
I’ve called you out because I believe that you are crazy enough to honor this challenge, and to be creative enough to find cold water even in the summer.
You have one week to do this challenge and donate $10 to The Zoë Faye Foundation in honor of Zoë, or you can keep warm and dry and donate $100 to the same charity.
www.foreveryoungmassagetherapy.com -- All profits of FYMT is donated to charity.

industry_corpus2: Others


text:
And now for something completely different: a review of a music CD!
The Source is the latest progressive metal album by Ayreon, aka Arjen Anthony Lucassen, a project of his in which he writes metal operas. He writes and plays most of the music for his albums, but invites vocalists from different (mostly metal) bands to sing the parts. Many of his albums follow a science fictional story. This album, The Source, reveals the origins of The Forever, the alien race that is at the center of the story.
Alpha, the planet The Forever originally inhabited, is dying. It’s being shut down by the Frame, the computer system that controls the entire planet. It thinks that in order to solve the ecological and political problems of the planet, it has to wipe out the entire race. Ten of the Forever manage to escape in a spaceship called the Starblade. They head for an ocean planet near the Star of Sirrah. In order to adapt to their new aquatic environment, they take a drug they call “the Source” or “Liquid Eternity” to change their bodies and minds. They alternately mourn for their fallen race, worry that they will forget their origins and repeat their past mistakes, and rejoice in their new world, the new start they have for their future. But… deep in the depths of the ocean, there is one robot who stayed faithful to their masters thus far… whom the Forever have forgotten.
The cast of vocalists is incredible: Tommy Karevick of Kamelot, Russell Allen of Symphony X, Simone Simons of Epica, Hansi Kursch of Blind Guardian (both of these bands my boyfriend and I have seen in concert), Floor Jansen of Nightwish, and many more. They all sing together at multiple points in the album, and have lots of duets together, making it feel more like an opera than previous Ayreon albums. All the vocalists do an amazing job of conveying the emotions of their characters. Each song flows seamlessly from one track to the next, so that the music and the story are uninterrupted. There is a serious lack of continuity listening to the playlist of the album on YouTube vs. listening to the album on iTunes. Even the few seconds it takes for the next video to load is too long, too jarring.
There are parts that are epic, parts that are pure headbanging metal, parts that are tragic, parts that are funky with an amazing bass, parts that are creepy. It adds up to a sweeping, awe-inspiring whole. For previous fans of Ayreon, there are multiple references to past albums, both in the lyrics and within the music. For new fans, I am so sorry you have to listen to this one first, because no other Ayreon album will come close to this for you. I was completely blown away by it and it’s been on repeat since it dropped. This has permanently replaced my favorite album, 01011001… and my favorites are incredibly hard to replace!
Thank you for being patient with this late Wednesday post… and listening to me rant about metal, no less!

industry_corpus2: Film & Entertainment


text: The stories and incidents depicted in the Shree Saisachcharit root the bhakta’s faith ever more resolutely and his bhakti at the Sadguru’s feet, ever more firm and intense. Numerous such blessed moments, such instances of grace form part of the lives of Sadguru Shree Aniruddha bapu’s bhaktas too. Many of these ‘special moments’ have appeared in the Special Issues and many more are regularly published in the ‘Krupasindhu’ magazine. Some can even be watched on ‘Aniruddhabapu videos’ – the Youtube channel.The narrations of these blessed moments are not just guidance for the shraddhavaan, they serve above all, to anchor firmly, the bhakta’s faith and endurance at the Sadguru’s feet.And faith and endurance are in fact fortitude, which in turn, is nothing but an indication of the firmly anchored bhakti of a bhakta.The grace of Sadguru Sainath cured Saibhakta Dr. Pillai of the guinea worms and Sadguru Bapu’s grace cured Bapubhakta Dr. Rajiv Karnik of his blood cancer (leukemia). We realize that a parallel can be drawn between these instances; they are similar and comparable. So it is with the incident where Sadguru Sainath rescued the ironsmith’s child from the fire by putting his hand in the burning flames and the one where Mrs. Animaveera Shettigar’s son fell down from the 3rd floor and was yet safe, totally unhurt. Sadguru Sainath in His own way, forewarned Shree Balasaheb Mirikar and saved him from a snake bite and Bapu forewarned Shree Ankushsinh Choudhary that he ought to stay away from water during his stay in Thailand which saved this Bapubhakta from a grave mishap.Now, I wish that we study and discuss on the forum, the value “May we have the one firm and complete faith that the Sadguru alone is the Doer; He alone, the Protector” (Ek vishvas asawa purta, karta harta guru aisa) in the context of the similarity that we draw between the moments of grace that the bhaktas of Sainath had been blessed with and those that Bapubhaktas have been blessed with.

industry_corpus2: Literature & Emotions


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“All we need to do is to always put them first and empower them otherwise they will never get the opportunity to grow. It is with this conviction that I[Oshana Regional Council] am donating N$550 000 towards youth enterprise development in Oshana Region,” Irimari said.
The 11 constituencies will each get N$50 000 from the allocated money.
Irimari made the announcement when he addressed the regional leadership yesterday.
Speaking fondly about improving the livelihoods of the regions residents, the governor called on his team to build public private partnerships geared towards that effect.
He further called for broad regional support to transform the regional economy into an industrialised economy. This he said, will liberate the regions inhabitants and equally allow them to prosper.
The governor also reminded the regional leadership of its duty to address socio-economic challenges such as youth unemployment, poverty, wealth and gender disparity, drought and the slow economic growth.
“We need to take a pragmatic approach as to arrest the immediate socio-economic issues facing the region,” the governor said.
Equally, the governor also appealed for unity within the regional leadership structures in order to accelerate and enhance service delivery in the region.
He further encouraged the team to cultivate a culture of public participation and stakeholder’s engagement particularly with the public, local authorities, parastatals, non-government organizations and the media in order to create a unison society.
He also pledged to be a people’s governor and thus appealed to his team to refrain from working in isolation.
“I will not be a governor of spectatorship, but I will be a governor who would collectively initiate and innovative development ideas and yield action based solutions for the betterment of this great region of Oshana,” said Irimari.
The address on Wednesday is part of the governor’s stakeholders’ engagement program.


text:
Be the BEST you can be while being a team player!
We've curated an excellent program for you.
Weekly yoga in the workplace helps to create a productive environment keeping employees focused and happy while encouraging health and wellness.
Length of sessions and frequency depends from company to company…..what works for you?
Customize a yoga program to meet your organization's needs.
Daily, weekly, or monthly sessions at a duration of your choosing.
Acknowledge the individual while strengthening the team dynamic.

industry_corpus2: Health & Medicine


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Card games are the most common type of indoor games that will keep us entertained as well as help us to develop our skills. India is a country which is traditionally known for its significance of playing cards in the families. The whole family including the most elder member to the younger one take part in the game. From a very young age, Indians are taught how to play Indian rummy.
Rummy is admired by a significant percentage of the Indian population. People play rummy with real money and some of them even consider playing cash rummy as a profession. The love for rummy is clear from the fact that it has successfully fledged into the online world. Before jumping into the topic on ‘How to Play Rummy’, let’s discuss a bit on the benefits and importance of card games in India.
Card games are an important element that helps us to socialize with our friends and family in a better way. It helps in building trust and long lasting relationships with your acquaintances. You get to know each other better with card games like the Indian rummy. The fun part involved in the game and the sportsmanship of the game are some takeaways. You can teach the younger ones in your family on how to play rummy and as they learn, they will socialize more in a mannered behaviour.
Mathematical and analytical skills can be improved significantly by learning how to play Indian Rummy. The skill game requires some element of thought process to overpower your opponents. It’s proven to help you develop your calculation skills, especially while playing points rummy where we are supposed to count the points that we obtain while playing. 13 cards or 21 cards rummy formats also helps the children to improve their expertise dealing with numbers all at the same time they get better in analysing different scenarios to win the game.
Memory power is something that you will need to use while learning the rummy rules as well as playing the game. If you know how to play rummy and you can memorise the cards, you can easily get an idea on what cards your opponents are holding. If you remember the cards that your opponents have discarded and the cards that your opponent took from the open deck, you have a clear chance of winning the game. You can also do your math to guess the cards that are likely to be left in the closed deck if you are good in memorising the playing cards.
It is really an uncomplicated process to learn Indian rummy. The Indian version of the rummy is the 13 card rummy which is usually played between 2 to 6 players. The dealing is done in such a way that each player on the table gets 13 cards each. A single standard deck of playing cards is used if there are 2 to 3 players. If there are more than 4 players joining the game, 2 decks are used.
After each player is dealt with 13 cards, the remaining cards are left on the table faced down and these cards are known as the Closed Deck. An Open Deck is where the unwanted cards are discarded during the game play. According to the Indian rummy rule, a card is kept the face open to create the ‘Open Deck’ at the beginning of the game. A wild card Joker is selected at random from the closed deck; this can be used to substitute the missing cards in your sets or sequences.
The rules for playing rummy are pretty straightforward. The main objective of the game is to make sets and sequences out of the 13 cards we are dealt with. Once all the cards are arranged into sets and sequences, we will be able to declare the game.
Sequence: A sequence is obtained when 3 or more consecutive cards of the same suit are arranged together. A sequence is called ‘pure’ if there are no ‘Jokers’ used to substitute the missing card. If a sequence has a Joker in it, it is called as ‘Impure Sequence’. A valid declaration should have at least one pure sequence. Eg: 7♥8♥9♥10♥ is a pure sequence.
Set: A set is obtained when 3 or 4 cards of the same rank but different suits are arranged together. There should be at least one set for a valid declaration. Eg: 9♥9♣9♦ make a valid set. You can use a joker as an alternative to the missing card to make a sequence.
The gameplay of rummy is simple. Once the cards are dealt to the players, the player to the left of the dealer has the first chance to make a move. The first move is to pick a card; the player can either pick a card from the closed deck or from the open deck. After picking up a card, the player should discard an unwanted card from his hand to the discard pile or ‘open deck’. The game is played in clockwise direction and the gameplay continues. The winner of the game is the one who is able to arrange all his cards into sequences and sets.
Additionally, You can also play rummy by using free rummy game download apks on your mobile to play.
Now as you learned how to play rummy, let’s go to the point calculation section. Points are calculated when many rounds of game are played depending on the Indian rummy variant you are playing. The player with the least points wins the game of rummy.
The winner of the round gets zero point and points of other players are calculated on the basis of the cards that they were not able to make a sequence or set out of. If a player is not able to make a single pure sequence, he is given 80 points (80 is max point given for a player in a round). If a player makes an invalid declaration, he is also assigned with 80 points.
As you have learned Indian rummy rules and game play, go ahead and teach your friends as well. Play a round or three with your friends to develop your skills as well as to learn new strategies. Don’t forget to browse through our advanced rummy strategies to polish your game play!

industry_corpus2: Gaming


text: Threatened with lawsuits from environmental groups, the Obama administration has agreed to issue another round of greenhouse gas limits for both power plants and refineries -- this time through a provision of the Clean Air Act that allows U.S. EPA to require pollution controls at both new and existing facilities. The agreement suggests the administration plans to press forward with its efforts to address climate change, despite the failure of the cap-and-trade bill in the Senate this year and the expectation of a backlash in Congress once regulation-averse Republicans seize control of the House next month. Under today's deal with several states and environmental groups, EPA plans to issue a "modest" set of performance standards for two sectors that produce about 40 percent of U.S. greenhouse gas emissions, air chief Gina McCarthy told reporters this morning.

industry_corpus2: Power & Energy


text:
HITN-TV, the television network that offers educational and entertaining content to Hispanic audiences in the United States, is announcing today a content agreement with NatGeo and Fox Networks Group to acquire new programming. These latest acquisitions will start to air the week of September 5th.
The new programing will include a series by the popular dog whisperer, Cesar Millan. In Cesar Millan's Leader of the Pack, the popular dog trainer searches for the perfect candidates to adopt rescued dogs. In Cesar to the Rescue sends Millan to neighborhoods terrorized by badly misbehaving dogs, using his unmatched expertise to bring balance to dogs and humans alike.
"These new programs are important additions to HITN-TV's programming," said Eric Turpin, HITN-TV's General Manager. "They include factual productions, featuring a number of new titles that are part of our ongoing programming strategy to provide exciting and fresh new content that continues to grow our audience in 2016."
Also premiering on HITN-TV in September is Dr. Vet, L.A., which features three of LA's best-known Hispanic veterinary physicians, solving complicated cases and offering tips for animal safety and human-pet relations.
"As one of HITN-TV's strongest content line-up for this fall TV season, we are planning to push these new shows hard; I believe the new programming for September has the potential to be a big hit among our audience," said Florentina Almonte, Programming Director of HITN-TV.
The fall lineup will also includes two new programs: Aquiles in Houston, the adventures of Chef Aquiles Chaves and his family as they move to the U.S. to open a Mexican restaurant; and Nuestra Mirada (Our Look), a four-part special profiling Hispanic immigrants struggling to succeed in the United States, narrated by journalist and producer, Rolando Nichols.
HITN-TV provides educational programming in Spanish in the United States, reaching more than 40 million households in key Hispanic markets across the country. HITN-TV is distributed in the US and Puerto Rico on DIRECTV, DISH Network, AT&T U-verse TV, Verizon FiOS TV, Comcast, Charter, Cablevision and Mediacom, and in other markets on Time Warner Cable.


text:
It really is dependent on what option of coaching you choose. If you have gone for an ‘e-book’ programme this will be up to you to coach yourself through the programme content. If, however you have chosen a package that has 1:1 sessions, we usually agree upon a time and then book our session in and then talk through Skype. Some people would prefer the 1:1 to take place via e-mail and I will respond within 24 hours of your e-mail being sent.
Will coaching change my Life?
In essence yes. However, all forms of coaching are dependent upon the ‘responsiveness’ of the client. Whilst I show you the doorway of change, it is you who must walk through it. I consistently reiterate to all my new clients, “You will only get out of coaching what you put in”. Conscious coaching is a method whereby you will be revealed to your ‘true self’, sometimes this seeing may feel uncomfortable, other times liberating, but it will always be in your highest interest. Coaching, at it’s core, is about YOU achieving whatever it is that you want to get out of this thing we call life. I believe most people never give themselves the gift of discovering how great they can be. Coaching will elevate your consciousness, making you aware of who you really are today, allowing you to tap into your greatness and unleash your full potential.
How is Conscious Coaching different to other methods of coaching?
All coaches, regardless of what the topic is, are usually people who have practiced a method enough times to see an effect from it and therefore wish to guide others. Conscious coaching is a method of ‘true self-discovery’ utilising meditation, mindfulness and psychological practices to expand your true awareness of self. Any of the techniques I utilize I have used in my own life and seen the rapid transformation and only wish to share with others. The biggest discovery I made from making my life ‘conscious’ is that I was always enough, always, but my mind wanted to convince me otherwise and therefore my actions were aligned with my mind rather than my heart, which in turn created confusion in my life and a sense of ‘being out of alignment’. When I got back into ‘alignment’ my Life completely transformed in untold ways.
A business has a production line that is dependent on a machine right in the centre functioning. The machine breaks down. What happens to the business? Production stops and there is a loss to the business because it cannot produce the product that makes it successful. A ‘coach’ comes in, looks at the machine, takes out a hammer, taps the machine and it works immediately. The owner of the business says “Wow! that was quick! But now I feel that I shouldn’t pay you because it was rectified so easily”. The coach says ” You could have spent days trying to work out how to make the machine work, bringing in different engineers to assess the problem, each day loosing productivity and earnings. I just knew where on the machine to hit to get it working again”.
What my little analogy is looking to show, is that a ‘coach’ is someone who you can go to for immediate clarity.
I offer a safe, 100% confidential, non-judgmental, supportive, space to help you explore yourself. My focus is helping you get to where you want to be in life by seeing who you truly are. My coaching is rooted in a holistic approach that integrates mind, body and spirit deploying meditation, mindfulness and psychological techniques. I fully commit my energy, time, wisdom and resources to help you achieve your goals.

industry_corpus2: Subject Education


text:
Size: 448 by 615mm (17¾ by 24¼ inches).
Condition: In very good condition, full margins as published.
Copper engraving, hand colored in outline and wash when published. Fine map, hand colored in contemporary wash, when published, showing the kingdom of Spain with dedication to Rodericus Mendez Sylvae. Published in Augsburg at Tobias Conrad Lotter, engraved by Matthäus Seutter.


text:
MARCUS RASHFORD can handle the pressure of his England call-up, according to David James.
The Manchester United star has had a remarkable breakout season at Old Trafford since his debut on February 25.
Rashford penned a new deal with the Red Devils this week, keeping him at the club until 2020.
And England hero James, who made 53 appearances for The Three Lions, claims the youngster deserves his call-up.
"If you had asked me a month ago he wouldn't have been in the [England] Under 21s," James told the Daily Express. "But given that, he has just continued [to impress].
"There will be a point where his performances slow down or stop - not because of his age - it's just the way it is. No one is fantastic forever. However, that hasn't happened at the moment so just let him play.
"This isn't a lad that's played well for a small team in the Premier League. This is a lad who has played well for one of the biggest clubs in the world.
"I'm sure he's very savvy with his social media and he knows how big Manchester United are.
"So if there's an issue of pressure it doesn't seem to be affecting him.
"So going to play for England is a very short but logical step. I say short in time-wise, massive in other ways. But he scored on his debut - wow."

industry_corpus2: Sports


text:
Crossword Clue: Secretive government group: Abbr.
As you might be aware, Daily Celebrity Crossword is a daily crossword puzzle developed by PuzzleSocial Inc which is available for all major platforms including the iOS and Android apps. Please be aware that the clue Secretive government group: Abbr. which has the answer: “NSA” is part of the Daily Celebrity Crossword Puzzle dated March 26 2018. There might happen that same clues might have same answers that is why we would highly recommend you to check each of the crossword clues provided on our site by using the search feature.


text:
Lets non-profit organizations and similar groups create and manage fresh media content.
Builds local commerce while supporting non-profits in your area.
Opens new revenues sources for non-profit groups.
Gives small businesses access to affordable, effective video advertising.
Websites are a must for every organization. They’re a vital daily link for news, updates, event schedules and announcements. With so much going on, it leaves little time or resources to use these popular websites to their full potential. NonProfitScope is changing all that.
NonProfitScope is designed for non-profit/not-for-profit organizations and facilities. This unique OneStream media network supplements your organization’s official website with an online video channel full of new possibilities and opportunities. Our development team will custom-build and manage your own personalized NonProfitScope Channel that runs independently from the organization’s official website. And, we can provide equipment to the organization for free to make it all happen. Imagine what you could do with that!
You’re invited to contact us to arrange a call or casual meeting to answer any questions about marketing your business on local OneStream OnlineTelevision Channels.

industry_corpus2: Computing & Telecommunications


text:
During a Friday morning appearance on KNBR’s “Murph & Mac Show,” general manager John Lynch said the 49ers—who have an ostensible need at wide receiver—were in on Beckham, but were never seriously interested in Brown.
Beckham was ultimately traded to the Cleveland Browns in exchange for a first-round pick, a third-round pick and safety Jabrill Peppers.
Brown, who flirted with 49ers players on social media and talked to 49ers legend Jerry Rice about playing in the Bay Area, was apparently never in play for the 49ers.
“On Antonio we took a quick look and then we just said ‘Hey, you know, we’re not interested in that for our team,'” Lynch said.
Brown (sort of) got his wish to play in the Bay Area, as he was traded to the Oakland Raiders for a third-round pick and a fifth-round pick.
Lynch said the team feels pretty good about its depth chart at the position.
The 49ers GM also discussed the acquisitions of Dee Ford, Kwon Alexander and Tevin Coleman as well as preparation for next month’s NFL Draft.
You can listen to his full KNBR appearance here.


text:
In our FaceTime calls on Friday evenings at 9pm I would like you to have the following information ready. If you can send this to karrina_howe@hotmail.co.uk before our calls.
Weigh in and measurements are to be done on the Friday.
These sites will give you a little low down without me babbling. But in summary, train around a lower carb, especially seeing as your job is composed of you sitting. Then train, and eat a meal with carbs which will get the protein to your muscles and help you build muscle. Thus giving you the lean look.
Any questions shoot them across and we can discuss this more on our next chat. I love chatting nutrition so am happy to sit and chat through.


text:
Upload of sales information to the Business accounting application.
The system also provides basic sales reports.
The application can be integrated with the standard Bar code scanner and receipt printer.


text:
In part two of our Computer Programming Series, Megan talks with Brynn Claypoole, a senior in computational biology at Penn and former executive director of Penn Apps, the hackathon we covered earlier this year. To check out the first article in this series, check out Heidi’s piece here.
When you think of a programmer, you might imagine someone working at Google or Amazon, or perhaps one of many iOS app developers at Apple or third party development teams. However, what many people imagine to be the obvious route for computer science graduates seems to be shifting—or at least broadening—to include positions in non-profits, teaching, and social entrepreneurism. All businesses and sectors benefit from knowledgeable and talented computer scientists, and recent graduates are recognizing this.
I spoke with Brynn Claypoole two weeks ago, as she was finishing her senior spring of finals. She was toting some study materials for her Japanese language class (she is a Japanese minor) and met up with me at Hubbub, one of my favorite interview spots.
Brynn is soft-spoken, intelligent, and offers a wealth of information about the computer science world—something Brynn never would have imagined in high school. “I didn’t know what programming was for a long time. It just wasn’t even a concept. It wasn’t a school subject.” After being introduced to the concept through friends, she petitioned her school to let her take AP Computer Science online. But, even at this point, she wasn’t completely sold. Brynn applied to most colleges as a biology major, and on a whim, applied to Penn’s Computational Biology program, within the Department of Computer Science.
“I ran the first Penn Apps without having any idea what I was doing. But after that, I started going to hackathons every other week. I’d always do the same thing. I would help out, working with the other volunteers.” The next January, Penn Apps was much more streamlined—she had learned a lot.
Luckily, Brynn found that she really enjoyed working on the hackathon. And implementing changes that today makes Penn Apps accessible to a wide range of students, whether you are a seasoned programmer or not.
“I think it really stemmed out of seeing the problem I had at my first Penn Apps. It was way too intense. The way I got into it and the only way I could actually start learning was that those random guys I met from Yale pointed me to the right place. It just takes that initial step: someone telling you what a web app is.” During her junior year, she decided that she wanted to create a formal system for teaching the very basics to people interested in getting involved in hackathons.
I really like non-profits. Programmers are really expensive. It would be so useful to non-profits to have someone to build a website for them. Simple things that I do at hackathons every weekend. I would like to get involved with that."
Right now, she is working for a start-up that focuses on data privacy. They have a specific data privacy algorithm that can de-identify databases of people, which is particularly important for making medical data publicly available. “If you have a database, that has health information about them, due to HIPPA standards, you have to remove a lot of information. But, there have been studies that you can still identify those people. So, this start-up creates a synthetic database that is very, very similar [to the original dataset]. You could still perform statistics on it and get the same results. It would be really nice, because then people who collect all this information could share it with the general public.” Currently, Brynn is helping the company apply their algorithm to genetic data.
And this brings us back to the beginning of this article. The broadening of the computer science field and expansion of options for graduates. With a background in programming, it seems as though the options are endless—whether you are interested in developing new technology, teaching others, helping non-profit companies, or pushing the bounds of research. I’m excited to see how Brynn enjoys her work at Udacity and what paths she decides to pursue next.
Thank you to Penn Apps and Major League Hacking for the use of these photos.

industry_corpus2: Programming


text:
A Maker's Mark truck full of spiced cider and baked goods is hitting the streets of Manhattan this week, doling out treats in exchange for donations to fight hunger and poverty.
The Kentucky bourbon brand is running a good old-fashioned bake sale to raise money for the nonprofit Share Our Strength. Dubbed the Share Delicious Holiday Tour, the traveling sale will be in New York through Wednesday, offering up treats from Butter & Scotch bakery in exchange for a suggested donation of $5.
The menu includes items like Cheddar-chive biscuits, hot-toddy caramel corn and locally inspired creations -- like "The Brownie that Never Sleeps," an espresso-spiked dessert created in honor of New York. There will also be spiced cider -- bourbon-free, of course, as the city frowns upon open containers of alcohol on the street.
But if you're looking for a cocktail, never fear. The truck will be making an evening visit to Mother's Ruin in NoLIta on Tuesday, where two special cocktails will be offered: a Maker’s toddy, with cinnamon, lemon, ginger and star anise, and a Maker’s mule, with homemade ginger beer, lemon and blackstrap. The truck will also visit local liquor stores on Monday and Wednesday evenings, in case you'd like to stock up on bourbon and brownies in one trip.
Hungry do-gooders don't even need cash to participate: Diners can text "Makers" to 877-877 to make the suggested $5 donation, and can show the confirmation at the truck to receive a treat of their choice.

industry_corpus2: Hospitality & Catering


text: We camped at Stateline Memorial Day weekend and found the campground in great condition. All of the staff where friendly and we loved the fact that security was always around. They where very kind and helpful and kept the noise down during night hours. Stateline did all that they could to make our stay a fantastic time. I would recommend this park to anyone with children who like to stay active. We camped at Stateline Campresort & Cabins in a Travel Trailer.

industry_corpus2: Travel & Geography


text:
The charities regulator Oscr has ruled that trustees of Shetland Charitable Trust and directors of its subsidiary Slap acted properly in the sale of the site of engineering firm HNP.
It followed a complaint submitted in February by the director of HNP Engineers (Lerwick) Ian Walterson who has been in a dispute with Slap about his firm’s enforced move from the site at Commercial Road in Lerwick.
In a letter to SCT chief executive Ann Black, Oscr’s head of enforcement Laura Anderson said: “It appears that the charity trustees and directors of Slap have acted in line with their legal duties throughout [the sale] process.
Ian Walterson has accused charities regulator Oscr of being ‘toothless’ after it ruled Slap had acted in accordance with regulations over the sale of HNP Engineering’s Commercial Road site.
Mr Walterson said that Oscr’s finding was “disappointing but to be expected”. He said that the charity regulator was a “toothless organisation”.
HNP has completed the purchase of a workshop at the Black Hill Industrial Estate and has established temporary offices in a portable cabin at the back of that building. It is in the process of installing heavy duty wiring in the workshop and even that was a “major task”, said Mr Walterson, who stuck by his prediction that the move would only be completed by the end of the year. As well as fitting out the workshop with heavy equipment, offices inside the building have to be prepared.
Mr Walterson was also critical of Slap for not having paid a penny towards HNP’s expensive removal, despite “recent statements” that Slap had tried to help HNP in any way possible to complete the move. “That’s not the case,” he said.
Oscr also recommended that the trust reviews the wording of one of its “objects” regarding the purpose of making loans or grants “towards promoting directly or indirectly the development of any industry or industries among the community”, a task that the trust has already started.
Bobby Hunter has welcomed the letter that confirms the charitable trust and Slap acred in accordance with charity law.
SCT Chairman Bobby Hunter welcomed the letter and said in a statement sent to the press: “I am pleased that Oscr has ruled that we handled the situation in accordance with charity law.
• The sale of the Commercial Road site clears the way for the proposed development of student accommodation.
There’s a world of difference between “legal” and “ethical”. Our esteemed SCT trustees seem to believe they have virtually identical definitions, and thus are interchangeble terms.
Du’s hit the nail on the head there Michael. The SCT seems to ken the price of everything but the value of nothing.

industry_corpus2: Real Estate & Construction


text:
The LA Kings defense remains the best in the NHL, as they are allowing just 2.04 goals against per game. The LA offense is one of the worst in the League right now; the Kings have scored 1 goal or less in four straight games, and have put just 1.50 goals per game on the board over their last 10 games, which is fewer goals than the last place Sabres offense is scoring (1.83 goals per game). The Kings were held scoreless in 2 of their last 3 games, and have had their last 4 games stay under the total. The last 2 games for the Penguins have managed to stay under the total, with the Penguins adding another win to the board with a 3-0 victory over Buffalo on Monday, two days after they were shut-out 3-0 by the Dallas Stars. The Pittsburgh defense ranks 9th overall with 2.42 GA/G. Both clubs have good penalty kill numbers over their last 10 games, while the respective power plays are suffering. The Kings have gone 86.1% on the penalty kill over their last 10 games, while scoring on just 9.5% of their power play opportunities (scored on just 3 of their last 38 power play opportunities), while the Penguins are a solid 84.4% on the penalty kill over their last 10 games, and have gone 16.7% on the power play. Marc-Andre Fleury is probable for Pittsburgh with his record of 29-12-1, 11th place goals against average (2.26 GAA), and the Leagues 14th best save percentage (.917 SV%). Fleury received a shut-out in his last start against Buffalo saving all 24 shots against him. Jonathan Quick is probable for LA and is 15-10-2 on the season with a 2.05 GAA (5th) and a .917 SV% (14th). The Kings are having a hard time scoring, while they continue to allow the fewest goals of any team in the NHL. This one should stay under the total and we will take it for a plus-money price.
There’s great value on the Wild here at this price. The Wild have had to face three of five of the NHL’s best teams in a row, and did pretty good for themselves, considering they won 2 of 3 games; a 4-2 win over Anaheim (Jan.28), a 2-3 loss to San Jose in overtime (Jan 25), and a 2-1 win against Chicago (Jan 23). The Avalanche managed a 4-3 win over Dallas on Monday, however two days prior they lost to the Tampa Bay Lightning by a score of 5-2. The Avalanche also lost by a score of 5-2 against the Toronto Maple Leafs on January 21st. The Minnesota Wild have the 7th best defense in the NHL, allowing just 2.38 goals against per game, and have allowed only 2.10 goals against per game across their last 10 games. The Avalanche defense are allowing more goals than usual, 2.90 goals against per game over their last 10 games, and have allowed 19 goals in their last 5 games, an average of 3.80 goals against per game. The Avalanche have the Wild beat on the special teams, as the Avs are 19.3% on the power play (12th) and 81.8% on the penalty kill (15th), while the Wild are 17.4% on the power play (20th) and are just 79.3% on the penalty kill (26th). Darcy Kuemper is probable for Minnesota and has done a great job in Hardings absence, winning 3 of his last 5 starts, and has a record of 6-3-1 with a 2.26 GAA and a .924 SV%. Semyon Varlamov is listed as probable for the Avalanche and is 26-9-5 on the season. Varlamov has the Leagues 8th best save percentage (.925) and a 2.43 GAA (15th). If the Wild are careful not to take many penalties, they have a great shot at winning this one, as their defense has been solid, accompanied by solid goaltending. At this price they provide exceptional value for bettors.


text: Arnott, Beck, Kalesnik, and West (2016) (ABKW) study smart beta or factor-based strategies and come to the following conclusions: (1) Aside from value, most popular factor strategies currently look expensive. (2) These expensive factor valuations portend lower future returns and a strong possibility of a future “factor crash” in which they go “horribly wrong.” And (3) many of these non-value factors were never real to start with because their historical performance was due to factor richening. That is, researchers mistook the one-time returns from factor richening for truly repeatable “structural alpha.” ABKW’s implied bottom line (their many protestations to only making modest recommendations aside): stick with value, dump the other factors. This essay elaborates on my response in Asness (2016). In summary: (1) I find non-value factor valuations moderately expensive, but not as expensive as ABKW. (2) I argue that ABKW exaggerate the power of factor timing by improperly using long-horizon regression techniques. More proper short-horizon regressions suggest some weak factor timing ability and given this predictability, I construct value-based tactical factor timing strategies to test them. Unfortunately, these strategies add little to portfolios that are already invested in the value factor. It turns out that this “newly” discovered timing tool is, yet again, mostly just a version of regular old value investing. And (3) I examine ABKW’s claim that factor richening drives much of non-value long-term factor performance and find that this very serious allegation about other researchers’ work is totally without merit. Overall, these results suggest that one should be wary of aggressive factor timing. Instead, investors are better off identifying factors they believe in, and staying diversified across them, unless we see far more extreme pricing than we do today.

industry_corpus2: Finance & Economics